Q: My husband and I have been married since 2007. His Father passed away in 2013. In his will he left rental property
With homes on them to my husband and his only sibling. My Father in laws brother owned a very small percentage of the property and homes also. He signed his portion over to my husband and his siblings very soon after my father in law passed away. My husband and his sister owned them for a couple of year's together and my husband then sold his portion to his sibling a couple of year's ago. She is now selling the property and the houses to a different person. My question is I got a phone call today from a title company aasking if I would sign saying I have no interest in the property. This in in Louisiana and I don't understand why I would have to sign anything when they weren't left to me but to my husband. I don't like signing anything I don't completely understand. Thank you.
A: Title insurance companies are uber conservative. Any time a married person conveys property they want sign off from the spouse. It is easier than doing the due diligence to confirm that the property is indeed his separate property and that his wife has no marital or community interest or right of reimbursement. For total comfort you should consult a local real estate attorney but most likely you will find that signing is safe and the right thing to do.
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