Q: 1990 Divorce, $300/mo child support ordered in Louisiana.
Subsequent payments in 1993 & 2003 were lowered by Texas courts (under UIFSA - "Continuing Exclusive Jurisdiction" specified in TX orders) to $130, then $100. Obligations were fully discharged 7/2006 by TX. In 3/2007, Louisiana told TX $17,000 + was still owed ... no documentation or court activity.
Now, 2 weeks ago - 16 years later - LA seeks Order to Determine Controlling Order ( and a little hometown justice) with connected ex-spouse. The "child" is now 35 years old and I have spent 13 years, another $9,000, trying to coordinate several agencies between the 2 states.
Can/should I file a similar Motion to Determine Controlling Order in TX? Does the LA Court even have jurisdiction?
'apologies for any lack of clarity, but the TX A.G.'s office, the JP's D.A.'s office and innumerable assoiciated agencies have been confused for more than a decade. I've been calling bi-monthly and have gotten dozens of conflicting versions.
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