Q: I had my house before my husband and I were married. He now wants me to sell and us divorce. Do I have to?
A:
That will depend on a number of factors. If the home is considered a marital asset, it would be subject to equitable division. There are not enough facts in your inquiry to determine whether the home would be considered marital. You should consult with a divorce attorney to explore your options.
Ellaretha Coleman
Atlanta Family Law Group, LLC
www.atlfamilylawgroup.com
(404) 963-9452
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A:
It's not possible to answer this without all of the facts. If you purchased the house prior to marriage and did not add him to the deed, it is a premarital asset. He may or may not be entitled to accumulation of equity, but this is fact specific.
Consult with a family law attorney about your options.
--Regina Edwards | www.EdwardsFamilyLaw.com | 770.854.0777
Fair, Flat Fees Only - No Hourly Billing
A: There are details that we would need to know in order to provide you with an answer on this. How long have you been married, for example. You may want to consult with an attorney who can review the facts in detail and provide you with guidance. -Homer P. Jordan IV, Esq. 404-620-1558
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