Q: I want to sell my house. I got it 2 years before i gotten married. Does my wife have to sign the deed for me to sell?
A: Even if a property was purchased prior to the marriage, a spouse generally has a marital interest in the property. In a divorce, the Court would likely find some of the value of the home is marital and some pre-marital, but it depends on the specific facts of the case. Thus, due to such reason, purchasers and lenders generally insist on having some form of written consent to the sale.
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