Q: Is it a crime that I failed to provide my Client with a copy of his signed agreement when we first got started?
I started working with a roofing Client in August of 2019, this month marks his 1 year wrap up and instead of renewing he is threatening me with legal action because he's upset about COVID and the complete lack of business, traffic and conversions on his website, all out of my control as Google even released something on their website stating that due to COVID they would be experiencing massive delays in specific areas like Google Maps and Site Search. Anyway, the Client is looking for any way that he can extort me, and he's saying that I "intentionally" didn't give him a copy of the signed agreement when he first got started with me so he couldn't exercise his rights to rescind the contract. However, he was given a proposal initially and then he signed the agreement, and then after he begged me for a split payment over 45 days and I accepted his offer. He had no intention of rescinding then, because if he did, why would he ask me for a payment plan? Truth is, I didn't know I had to.
A:
No it's not a crime.
How did he sign the agreement it without a copy of the agreement?
Sounds like he's looking for any reason not to pay.
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