Q: When i married my husband he had a house he just sold it and pocketed all the money.
We just purchased a home under both our names but did not put any money down from the sale of his house. I am now currently paying for the mortgage of new home. In case of a divorce am I entitled to the money he has from selling his previous home. When we lived there I contributed to the house payments even though it wasn't under my name...
A: If the husband owned the house prior to your marriage it would be considered separate property. However, you would be entitled to contributions.
The money from the sale of the house...is it in a separate account or has the money been comingled? I understand that it was not used as a downpayment for the new house, but there are still some questions that come up.
Speaking to an attorney will be beneficial.
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