Asked in Family Law for Texas

Q: How can court preceding's occur without being officially served papers?

I am involved in a SACPAR suit, both parties residing in Texas. I have never been served any paperwork by a process server, constable, etc or signed a waiver of service. The ONLY thing with my name on it is a Rule 11 agreement exempting me from a TRO( the R11 agreement doesn't state anything regarding service of papers). The court hasn't so much as attempted to contact me or notify me of anything and proceedings appear to be unaffected by this. I have limited understanding of Texas Family Code, but I believe they are required to officially serve me paperwork

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1 Lawyer Answer
Fran Brochstein
Fran Brochstein
  • Marble Falls, TX
  • Licensed in Texas

A: Being served is to give you notice that you are being sued. I think that you asked this question on another website and I've already answered it. File an Answer with your name, address, email and phone number clearly printed on it. Otherwise, the case can go forward without you. Then you could have a true legal "mess" on your hands and it can be expensive to fix. I urge you to hire an attorney. Quite frankly, I don't repair my own appliances, fix my own car or do my own dental work - hire someone to help you with this important matter.

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