Q: 5 years ago my ex boyfriend paid a years upfront rent for a house we lived in. I've paid some back out of good will.
5 years ago my ex boyfriend paid a years upfront rent for a house we lived in for both of us. We broke up half a year later and i moved out. I never signed a contract saying it was a loan and I would pay it back.
2 years ago he got in touch asking for it back. Out of good will I offered to pay some money towards it.
I've given him money on and off since then.
He is now telling me he wants to make a financial claim against me. Is he able to do that under UK law without a signed contract.
A:
This is a US law site. I would note that as I understand the common law, absent a contract there was no agreement in such circumstances and payments would be presumed to be a gift or benisson.
Generally, the statute of frauds prevents claims on an oral contract though payments on the alleged claim can extend that. If you are in the US and he is in the UK it might be that he does not have jurisdiction over you. That would be in part a matter of UK law--it would be a matter of US law if he received a judgment over there and then tried to enforce it in the US
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