San Jose, CA asked in Probate for California

Q: does an order have to be served upon the person it refers to in order to be effective? As being removed as a co-trustee

or for instance being removed as a person entitled to notification.

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1 Lawyer Answer

A: No, an order does not normally have to be served upon the person it affects, unless the judge orders it so. Through the case, you either were served, notified, or the court dispensed with notification to you. Didn't you appear at the hearing on the petition?

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