Q: If an agreement between 2 parties was signed and dated, is this considered a legal and binding document?
My ex-wife and I created an agreement before divorce and it included the proceeds from the sale of a property. If this property is sold, the proceeds would be split 50/50. we both signed and dated this agreement at the time. it was also added to the divorce decree as well. would this be considered a binding document?
A: It certainly sounds so, and if it was incorporated (but not merged) into your judgment of absolute divorce then it would be enforceable by contempt proceedings under the judgment as it now has the force of a court order. Obviously, without reviewing the agreement for any other issues, no lawyer can give the definitive answer you want, but any agreement reduced to writing and signed by both parties generally meets the definition of a contract, and ts incorporation into a divorce judgment only strengthens it to the point that it will not be set aside as unconsciounable or based on lack of full understanding of its terms or import, or even based upon fraudulent inducement or concealment of material facts.
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