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answered on Jul 8, 2011
If by wage earner you mean non-exempt, normally it is only non-exempt employees who are required to clock in and out. But there is no law prohibiting an employer from making exempt salaried employees clock in and out.
I'm a teacher in CT and the snow days occurred during my 12 weeks of FMLA. My employer is requiring that I use 12 concurrent weeks and not intermittent leave. Am I required to come back in 12 weeks and still have to make up the time (snow days) at the end of the year? US Dept of Labor said no... View More
answered on Jul 8, 2011
If the employer is counting the snow days against your FMLA leave, you cannot be required to make it up. But the employer should not count the snow days against your FMLA leave, in which case you could be required to make it up.
answered on Jul 8, 2011
The answer depends on whether your employer has informed you, in writing or otherwise, that you are not entitled to come back on the property and your paycheck has been mailed to you. A finding of trespass turns in most states on whether you have been notified not to come onto the property and... View More
I've been clean and in compliance for over a year now, work, have a car an apartment, and a good relationhip with my PO.
answered on Jul 8, 2011
Please clarify your question: if what you mean is that an employee was on probation and one of the conditions of the probation was that there would be zero tolerance for drug abuse, then a dirty urine sample could mean a violation unless there is a legitimate justification for the dirty sample,... View More
Responsible to pay commissions?
answered on Jul 8, 2011
Please clarify what you mean by executed contracts. Are these executed contracts that the sales person executed and for which the salesperson would normally receive commissions pursuant to an employment agreement or contract with the employer? If so, then the employer would be responsible for... View More
answered on Jul 8, 2011
In many states you cannot. For instance, both CT and NY do not allow you to do so. What you would have to do is pay the employee and then make a demand upon the employee for the money owed to you from the alleged breach of contract. In CT, for instance, if you fail to pay, you can be subject to... View More
answered on Apr 27, 2011
It depends on whether the principle was motivated to engage in such conduct because of discriminatory animus based on protected class status or because of retaliatory animus. Without an impermissible motive, there can be no discrimination.
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