Yes

Whether he can do this, depends on what was in the lease agreement.

This is a complicated question, and I can;t answer it in the space I've been given for only one post. So, I'm going to give you the full answer, in two separate posts.

Here is part 1:

First, find the original deed (or document) that originally transferred the home to your... View More

File an action in court to remove the trustee.

Look at the wording in the trust. Does it say that the "situs" of the trust is in a certain state? If so, file the action in that state.

The wording of the trust may also specify in which state a trust action must be filed. If... View More

If there was no written contract, then, your tenancy is presumed to be a "tenancy at will" and can be terminated by the landlord at any time. Okla. Stat. tit. 41 sec. 1

However, "thirty days notice in writing is necessary to be given by either party before he can terminate a... View More

If the judge ruled that the Plaintiff owed the Defendant legal fees, then, Defendant can file a lien on Plaintiff's property, in order to collect on the judgment.

What you are really contesting, is the underlying case itself. You are really questioning whether the judge should have... View More

There isn't enough information to determine whether your husband would end up with the property through probate. It may be simpler to keep an eye on the property and buy it at a tax sale. You might have to outbid someone but would likely get the property for a song either way. Or you may be... View More

You should have acquired a title insurance policy that is intended to address your dilemma.

Unfortunately, no. Unless your lease or rental terms state differently.

No unless you know the probate laws of Oklahoma and can do the paperwork required to file in Court to clear up the title to the property. But you would still have to file paperwork in Court.

Sorry for your issues.

It sounds as though your sister forged your name to an acceptance of an offer to sell and that an earnest money check was deposited. I say this because if your name is on the property (completed probate or trust) then you must sign before a notary public.

You... View More

A simplified Oklahoma probate Is required to put the property in the name of the person who inherited it. Unfortunately the Texas probate doesn’t have jurisdiction in Oklahoma so this step is necessary.

You should sign a lease with the person leasing your room setting out all the details concerning that persons rights and responsibilities under the lease and have the clause in the lease covering the situation you find yourself in presently. You could say that they can have an overnight guest for... View More

Your question is confusing. This appears to be a question concerning heirship and whether you can prove you were an heir of the deceased. You stated they wanted DNA evidence which a test can be taken but your facts don't address whether it was ordered or not and the results. You should make an... View More

The process server can serve the spouse also so you can get personal jurisdiction over both. The server will have to file his return of service showing he served the husband by leaving his summons with the wife. They must live together where she was served.

You will need a real estate purchase contract setting out the terms of the sale along with the names of the parties and the legal description of the property. Sellers and buyers must sign it. If there is to be an abstract on the property prepared and read by an attorney, that should be done after... View More

Sorry for your loss.

Yes. You are now the sole owner. However, it is important for you to complete and file an affidavit of surviving joint tenant with a certified copy of your husband's death certificate. It is a one page form and requires specific information about the original... View More

Sorry for your issues.

Unless your mother holds title to the property she cannot sell them. It sounds as though a probate would be needed. Depending upon the situation, your mother be required to share the inheritance with the husband's children (if not alive their descendants).... View More

That would mean the contract has become inoperable due to a term thue each party being released from the contract.

No one is responsible for anything since there was no damages to anyone under the contract. The second buyer ran out of money and couldn't get financing in order to purchase the property. The seller hasn't suffered damages since obviously the second contract had a contingency for... View More